Books Attributed to Imam Abū Ḥanīfa: A Historical and Analytical Overview


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  1. What the whole argument about the so-called anachronistic use of language is based on is the assumption that the ‘advanced’ used of theological terminology was not in use in the 2nd century AH and is supposedly much later (‘Abd al-‘Aziz al-Bukhari having passed in 730 AH).

    I believe that this is a weak argument.

    We see Imam al-Tahawi use some of the very same terminology, having passed away only in 321 AH; his text is from the 3.rd and 4.th century AH, far earlier than the 8.th century al-Bukhari.

    At the same time, Imam Abu Hanifah was indeed very advanced in his kalam being a genius of his time, the narrations clearly mentioning how people even pointed him out in public for becoming famous for his debates and his engagement in kalam arguments with various sects of his time, from khawarij to mu’tazilah and rafidis and jahmiyyah and others.

    He himself said that he spend a number of years debating kalam – travelling to Basra as well.

    And as for the argument of the usage of the teminology against jism etc., I believe this terminology was based on earlier greek philosophy and logic – all of which Imam Abu Hanifah could have been made aware of since he lived in Kufah and debated all kinds of non-Muslims as well.

    As for the argument about the presence of the debate about the Prophet’s ﷺ parents, then as Imam Zahid al-Kawthari argued, this could have been a mistake on the part of the scribe – and this wording was not mentioned in all of the narrations that he himself verified with their complete isnad. It is very unlikely that Imam Abu Hanifah included this passage in his ‘aqidah – along with a random addition of the Prophet ﷺ having died upon iman, which doesn’t even make sense to include at all, since no Muslim could ever doubt that and it has never been an issue.

    As for the gap argument:

    A plausible explanation for why it isn’t mentioned so often is simply it was not very well known or that most of it’s manuscripts had been destroyed, just as Imam al-Bazdawi noted about Imam Abu Hanifahs books having been erased – as Harvey himself quotes.

    Just like there being certain works that still only exist in the forms of manuscripts in some library or other, never having been published or only very rarely so.

    This could also explain why it was Imam al-Maturidi and other later Hanafi mutakallimun whose work took off instead of Imam Abu Hanifahs own works; for even though the attribution of al-Fiqh al-Akbar I (in Orientalist terminology) is well established, how many commentaries did this work get?

    Also: The arguments for making all earlier references to al-Fiqh al-Akbar to be about al-Fiqh al-Akbar I and not al-Fiqh al-Akbar II and thus claiming that there is no reference to it in the early sources also seems a bit weak in my view. How does Harvey know which al-Fiqh al-Akbar Ibn Nadim was referring to?

    Yes, it is a much larger debate, but as I read your article, I just wanted to leave a comment. I don’t see the Orientalist argument as very persuasive, I must admit.

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  2. This is funny, but I came across this while taking an online class of Dr. Zeeshan Chaudri’s and looking for the list of books attributed to Imam Abu Hanifah.

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